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The impact of the Great Depression on food in the US cannot be overstated. The Depression followed by the war was a relatively long period of time and for an e

The impact of the Great Depression on food in the US cannot be overstated. The Depression followed by the war was a relatively long period of time and for an entire generation the food of this time became what they were used to. Additionally prior to WW2 the middle class was fairly limited and most people in the US didn’t have lots of money. Industrialized food was simply less expensive and kept for long periods of time. I had plenty of great food in the 70’s and 80’s just not usually in restaurants. I’d imagine in the U.K., they probably didn’t have enough farmland to feed everybody given a rapidly growing population during the industrialization period. If you have to import food, it had to be preserved and again you acquire a taste for poor quality food because that’s what’s available. Italy, France, and Spain did not industrialize anywhere near the scale that existed in Britain or the US.

barry-cotter 6y ago
> Italy, France, and Spain did not industrialize anywhere near the scale that existed in Britain or the US. ??? Northern Italy has been among the richest, most developed parts the world non-stop since the renaissance. They didn’t achieve that without industrializing. France was so rich that it conquered half of Europe after 1800 and then it got richer with the Industrial Revolution. Paris was one of the biggest cities in the world for over 200 years by any standard. No history of the West, or the world would make any sense without France since the Revolution. You do not manage to acquire imperial possessions on every continent without industrializing early and fast. Spain, sure. It, Portugal and Southern Italy did not do as well as most of the rest of Western Europe.