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The rural vs urban partisan divide is not some exogenous thing. It's only existed in the last couple of political alignments in the US, basically since FDR. It'
by jasonwatkinspdx 6y ago
The rural vs urban partisan divide is not some exogenous thing. It's only existed in the last couple of political alignments in the US, basically since FDR. It's entirely possible things realign.
- edgyquant 6y agoThe rural/urban divide has existed since the birth of the US. See Jeffersonian v Hamiltonian economies.
- hamolton 6y agoYes, but the partisan divide based on political parties historically has been far more along the North/South divide than the rural/urban divide.
- bryanrasmussen 6y agoThe rural/urban divide may have existed since the birth of the U.S but the division has not aligned with the same political parties all the time, which would be anyway impossible as some parties no longer exist.