A plausible explanation I read about the wage gap (if there is any, contrary to this headline) blames it on the fact that wages are bounded from below (minimum

A plausible explanation I read about the wage gap (if there is any, contrary to this headline) blames it on the fact that wages are bounded from below (minimum wage) but not from above. If you have two groups that would normally have the same average but one is more dispersed, such a truncation on one side will lead to the gap.