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And by the way it's worded, I assume 146 is post-money.
by asaddhamani 6y ago
And by the way it's worded, I assume 146 is post-money.
- echelon 6y agoI'm still learning all of these investment terms. If the 146M is post-money, then they own (60/146M)%? If it's pre-money, (60/(60+146M))%?
- mikepurvis 6y agoYes, that is correct.