So are you positing that it would be impossible for a company to make such decisions if no individual shareholder owned >50% of the shares? If so the problem is

So are you positing that it would be impossible for a company to make such decisions if no individual shareholder owned >50% of the shares? If so the problem is still not with millionaires. And I'm not sure by what mechanism this will function. What will prevent a company where no individual shareholder owns >50% of shares from making a similar choice?