4 ms·
So, I think the proposed math is something like: 1/3rd of infected don't show antibodies so that 20% means 30% were infected. Another study showed pre-existing
by ericb 6y ago
So, I think the proposed math is something like: 1/3rd of infected don't show antibodies so that 20% means 30% were infected. Another study showed pre-existing T cell reactivity (maybe immunity?) in 40% of people, so if you combine those you're at 70%.
- tghw 6y agoI find it hard to believe, with the R0 numbers we were seeing initially, that 40% had a significant level of immunity. If the numbers were that high, then R0 among those without memory T-cell immunity would have been significantly higher, which suggests that the level of exposure/immunity necessary for herd immunity to set in would be significantly higher as well.
- ericb 6y agoWhat you're saying makes sense. Looking at some tables of it, it seems like if we imagine it in a naive population having a 50% higher reproduction number, it seems like it only bumps the herd immunity number by about 10% because it is such a high proportion already, if I'm understanding the charts right. It isn't clear if the numbers come together, but it does make me wonder if it could be close.