> Doesn't this assume the owner receives no other income? I assume owners either receive a salary from the company, or are paid a dividend with which they could

> Doesn't this assume the owner receives no other income? I assume owners either receive a salary from the company, or are paid a dividend with which they could use to pay the monetary-valued tax. Not always. To use the extremely adversarial example, Bezos' annual salary is (famously) $82,000, and Amazon pays no dividends because our tax code incentivizes re-investing surplus into R&D rather than enriching shareholders. The wealth tax, as a result, adds the incentive to increase shareholder dividends and/or inflate executive compensation just for them to be able to maintain ownership in their own companies.