4 ms·
> 1. It's clearly not a monopoly by any accepted definition. The European definition doesn't require you to even have the majority of a market - just the abili
by Mindwipe 6y ago
> 1. It's clearly not a monopoly by any accepted definition.
The European definition doesn't require you to even have the majority of a market - just the ability to materially affect consumer pricing. Proving that in court will be fairly trivial I think.
(Note this documentation from thd EU, which states a company "probably" needs 40% share - https://ec.europa.eu/competition/antitrust/procedures_102_en.html https://ec.europa.eu/competition/antitrust/procedures_102_en...)