4 ms·

60% != 100%. There is consumer choice.

by pneill 6y ago

reissbaker 6y ago
The threshold the US government uses is 50% market share, with exclusionary behavior. 100% is not required (and would be a crazy requirement to have; even Microsoft in its heyday couldn't have been prosecuted with that kind of threshold). The question isn't whether Apple has a large enough market share in the US for the courts to get involved — it very clearly does — the question is does it exhibit exclusionary behavior to the extent courts should get involved. (I think it does exhibit exclusionary behavior, but I can see that being much more open to interpretation than the simple fact that it clears the 50% threshold.) Regardless, my comment was just correcting the statement that Apple doesn't have a majority market share in any market, when in fact it has majority market share in the US market.
- hn_check 6y ago
  Your comment does not correct that statement, and uses erroneous data to claim otherwise. Apple does not have more than 50% marketshare of smartphones in the US. In most analyses it is between 41-43%, with an absolute high of 46%. Android accounts for the rest. And of course worldwide iOS is dwarfed by Android. https://www.kantarworldpanel.com/global/smartphone-os-market-share/ https://www.kantarworldpanel.com/global/smartphone-os-market... EDIT: Of course this was down-arrowed. The citation of StatCounter is akin to claiming that the rodeo's parking lot has 80% pick-up trucks, therefore pick-up trucks have 80% of the market. It's absolute nonsense but it somehow appears on HN repeatedly. Never change, HN. Never change.
  - reissbaker 6y ago
    That's a fair point that I didn't realize. That being said, it looks like the Apple App Store has well over 50% of the market (assuming "the market" means percentage of sales by revenue), so I think it's a moot point anyway; Epic is suing Apple for its monopolistic practices with the App Store, and it looks like app sales on that do clear the 50% threshold even if device sales don't. https://appleinsider.com/articles/19/07/03/apples-app-store-generated-80-more-revenue-than-google-play-with-a-third-as-many-installs-in-first-half-of-2019 https://appleinsider.com/articles/19/07/03/apples-app-store-...
newbie578 6y ago
You should read more about a definition of a monopoly. It does not mean 100% of market share.

60% != 100%. There is consumer choice.

by pneill 6y ago

60% != 100%. There is consumer choice.

The threshold the US government uses is 50% market share, with exclusionary behavior. 100% is not required (and would be a crazy requirement to have; even Microsoft in its heyday couldn't have been prosecuted with that kind of threshold). The question isn't whether Apple has a large enough market share in the US for the courts to get involved — it very clearly does — the question is does it exhibit exclusionary behavior to the extent courts should get involved. (I think it does exhibit exclusionary behavior, but I can see that being much more open to interpretation than the simple fact that it clears the 50% threshold.) Regardless, my comment was just correcting the statement that Apple doesn't have a majority market share in any market, when in fact it has majority market share in the US market.

hn_check 6y ago
Your comment does not correct that statement, and uses erroneous data to claim otherwise. Apple does not have more than 50% marketshare of smartphones in the US. In most analyses it is between 41-43%, with an absolute high of 46%. Android accounts for the rest. And of course worldwide iOS is dwarfed by Android. https://www.kantarworldpanel.com/global/smartphone-os-market-share/ https://www.kantarworldpanel.com/global/smartphone-os-market... EDIT: Of course this was down-arrowed. The citation of StatCounter is akin to claiming that the rodeo's parking lot has 80% pick-up trucks, therefore pick-up trucks have 80% of the market. It's absolute nonsense but it somehow appears on HN repeatedly. Never change, HN. Never change.
- reissbaker 6y ago
  That's a fair point that I didn't realize. That being said, it looks like the Apple App Store has well over 50% of the market (assuming "the market" means percentage of sales by revenue), so I think it's a moot point anyway; Epic is suing Apple for its monopolistic practices with the App Store, and it looks like app sales on that do clear the 50% threshold even if device sales don't. https://appleinsider.com/articles/19/07/03/apples-app-store-generated-80-more-revenue-than-google-play-with-a-third-as-many-installs-in-first-half-of-2019 https://appleinsider.com/articles/19/07/03/apples-app-store-...

newbie578 6y ago

You should read more about a definition of a monopoly. It does not mean 100% of market share.