4 ms·
FWIW, I find "in year XXXX" arguments equally frustrating. It is an entitled, condescending perspective that automatically dismisses the counter-point as a "thi
by acituan 6y ago
FWIW, I find "in year XXXX" arguments equally frustrating. It is an entitled, condescending perspective that automatically dismisses the counter-point as a "thing of the past" and "regressive" without adding any substance.
Which also happens to be factually misleading. Views on sexuality normativity does not have a linear progression over time, nor through societies [1].
Name dropping the current year not only doesn't add anything to the argument, it is also fallacious for any domain that doesn't progress strictly monotonically.
[1] For example in contrast to attitudes towards homosexuality in certain Middle Eastern countries today, little would consider that heteronormativity might have increased as more of a result of 19th century colonial European influence on those cultures. See this r/AskHistorians post: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4r17fc/what_lead_to_the_ottoman_empire_decriminalizing/d4xwz1l/ https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4r17fc/what_...