> Would it have been acceptable for a non-property-holding white male in 1820 to beat another man with a stick if the other man offended him, on the basis of th

> Would it have been acceptable for a non-property-holding white male in 1820 to beat another man with a stick if the other man offended him, on the basis of the first man lacking voting rights? If we're going to go for "all men", how about a felon or an immigrant attacking a proper citizen in 2020 on the same basis?