I am similarly confused, Is Richard's paradox really a paradox, since the 'diagonalized' mapping of texts to reals is not the same as the implied 'meaning-based

I am similarly confused, Is Richard's paradox really a paradox, since the 'diagonalized' mapping of texts to reals is not the same as the implied 'meaning-based' one? 'meaning-based' mapping is not bijective - both texts 'pi' and 'the number pi' map to the same real. On the other hand the 'diagonalization' mapping doesn't care about the new real: texts which describe how to obtain it are already assigned to an arbitrary real.