Frege did not in general reject intuition. The rules of what became first-order logic are accepted on the grounds that they are intuitively undeniable and provi

Frege did not in general reject intuition. The rules of what became first-order logic are accepted on the grounds that they are intuitively undeniable and provide the results we need. That's the actual lesson of Russel's paradox in response to Basic Law V: that blatantly obvious things can be problematic. For anyone interested in the semantic analysis of the verb "to be", I recommend Andrea Moro's book "A Brief History of the Verb To Be." Also note that analytic philosophy is the philosophical tradition the author is referring to, not rationalism [2]. This is an ahistorical use of the latter word. They did define their terms in the glossary but that won't help you in searching. [1]. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Analytic_philosophy https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Analytic_philosophy [2]. https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rationalism-empiricism/ https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rationalism-empiricism/