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> “We use the term ‘User Preference for Google Search’ and never the term market share,” that document says. Then wouldn't a court, whenever it sees "User Pref
by cabalamat 6y ago
> “We use the term ‘User Preference for Google Search’ and never the term market share,” that document says.
Then wouldn't a court, whenever it sees "User Preference for Google Search" or any other similar euphemism, simply treat it as meaning "market share"?