The only similarity between that and my argument is that both involve a measure decreasing. Are you saying that one fallacious argument involving a decreasing m

The only similarity between that and my argument is that both involve a measure decreasing. Are you saying that one fallacious argument involving a decreasing measure invalidates all arguments ever that involve (completely unrelated) decreasing measures? As is so often the case in academia, the basic idea is hidden by all the academic jargon. The basic idea is quite simple. Suppose you roll up your sleeves, get to work, and announce to the world: "Turing machine #57835 is an AGI with truthful knowledge". Then, without even needing to run Turing machine #57835 (which might be prohibitively expensive), just as a purely logical consequence of your announcement, you can conclude that the following ordinal number A is a computable ordinal: "The supremum of all ordinals B such that B has some code k such that Turing machine #57835 knows that k is a code of a computable ordinal". By construction, this ordinal A, for which you concretely know a code, is larger than any ordinal for which Turing machine #57835 knows a code. So in at least one extremely specific technical sense (the sense of knowing codes for large ordinals), you are more intelligent than Turing machine #57835. Which part of this argument is unclear?