> exactly the opposite complaints by the opposite side > This happens reliably, even universally, on every single divisive topic > the language they use to expr

> exactly the opposite complaints by the opposite side > This happens reliably, even universally, on every single divisive topic > the language they use to express them and so on, are identical I just don't see, or at least recognise, this type of behaviour elsewhere. See a post on guns or free speech and the flames that erupt amongst USAians, they have a very different character to the ones about china. > This shows that these perceptions are not objective Inevitably, but that does not in itself eliminate their being actual differences, and these being of a nature different from other flames ie. being backed not by ultranationalistic citizens of some country, but by a concerted centralised interference. So again, how do we determine this, or disprove it, in an empirical way?