3 ms·
yes, for almost all of human history wealth inequality has been (far) worse than it is today. The only period of relatively more equality was post-WW2. Inequal
by mjburgess 6y ago
yes, for almost all of human history wealth inequality has been (far) worse than it is today.
The only period of relatively more equality was post-WW2. Inequality then, as ever, has only been reduced by mass death -- either in the form of wars, or plagues, famines etc.
The mechanism of wealth acquisition, ie., investment /(preferential attachment), necessarily iterates towards increasing levels of inequality.