I think you mean `correlation is not causation'. Where there is causation, there certainly _is_ correlation. In any case, are their any methodological problem

I think you mean `correlation is not causation'. Where there is causation, there certainly _is_ correlation. In any case, are their any methodological problems with this study that you can point to? Any other studies you can point to that give a different result? I'm also curious about your anecdotal evidence, which you seem to give more weight than this study. Do you routinely ask people you meet whether they were home schooled? Do the ``intelligent, thoughtful'' people you meet routinely come out and tell you that they are not home schooled? Almost three percent of the current US student population is home schooled[1]. You've probably met a lot more home schoolers than you realize... [1] Study (pdf) as of 2007 at http://www.nces.ed.gov/pubs2009/2009030.pdf