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I feel like you've moved the goalposts on me since the parent was referring to GDPR, and so was I, and now you've brought up the ePrivacy stuff. Furthermore, i
by sigwinch28 6y ago
I feel like you've moved the goalposts on me since the parent was referring to GDPR, and so was I, and now you've brought up the ePrivacy stuff.
Furthermore, it only counts as processing under the GDPR if anonymisation was performed as a step on some data already covered on the GDPR. Ergo, if the data originally collected qualifies as anonymous data, then processing it is not covered by the GDPR.
- ThePhysicist 6y agoI think OPs question was if you can really collect "anonymous" analytics data from a client device without asking for consent, which you cannot really answer based on the GDPR alone. Yes, anonymous data is exempt from the GDPR, but the question is just if a HTTP request to a tracking service that contains the IP address and user agent of a persons' browser can be considered anonymous already (in most cases not). Some companies like Matomo (and Fathom, Simple Analytics, Plausible, ...) argue that you can collect tracking data without consent if you offer an opt-out to the user, I haven't been able to find a legal basis for this though. Even Microsoft asks you for consent before enabling their anonymous telemtry collection in Windows now.
- sigwinch28 6y agoYes, I think opt-out is specifically forbidden when consent is used as a legal basis, at least under the GDPR...