Sorry for stupid question but I'd imagine this ruling means the State of Oklahoma (and therefore all counties and cities/towns in Oklahoma) never had the author

Sorry for stupid question but I'd imagine this ruling means the State of Oklahoma (and therefore all counties and cities/towns in Oklahoma) never had the authority to bring criminal cases against those Native Americans in tribal lands? Would action of Congress mean any such criminal convictions stand? If yes, would that be a violation of the Constitution of the United States?