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Then the outcome is that a country can claim to support free trade while deliberately not supporting free trade, since "it's the other countries' fault."
by baddox 6y ago
Then the outcome is that a country can claim to support free trade while deliberately not supporting free trade, since "it's the other countries' fault."
- TulliusCicero 6y agoNo, they can't. If the US were to ban Chinese apps, and then China relented and allowed in American apps, and then the US kept the ban, that would make the hypocrisy clear. You could even made it explicit in the law, similar to what the EU is doing for travel reciprocity now that the coronavirus situation isn't as bad: have the text of the law explicitly say that the ban automatically lifts if the other country cooperates.
- baddox 6y agoThat’s exactly what I’m saying. To actually get free trade a country has to refuse to reciprocate in trade restrictions. This is my point, it’s not “free trade” for one country to match other countries’ restrictions on trade.
- TulliusCicero 6y agoSure, but it could pressure countries to actually engage in free trade.