> Or by having the plight of the dwarves be what ultimately moves a member of the extremely comfortable hobbit gentry to direct action? I curious what you thin

> Or by having the plight of the dwarves be what ultimately moves a member of the extremely comfortable hobbit gentry to direct action? I curious what you think he was trying to say with this? > Or even by the simple mixing of the unquestioned Norse "supreme contribution to Europe" with Jewish mythology, he wasn't hinting that, maybe, also, the Jewish people had contributed in the same way? Jewish mythology was by far more well known than Norse, through the Old Testament and its influence on Christianity. So I don't see why Tolkien would want to make that a point of that.