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"John is" is not contracted to "John's", so it's confusing to have "It is" contracted to "It's".
by belltaco 6y ago
"John is" is not contracted to "John's", so it's confusing to have "It is" contracted to "It's".
- Stratoscope 6y ago> "John is" is not contracted to "John's" John's not sure he agrees.
- samatman 6y agoFun historical fact: "John's knife" was once a contraction of "John his knife". No longer of course, the latter isn't grammatically correct in modern English. But that's where it comes from.
- acheron 6y agoThis is not true, it came from an inflectional ending in Old English. https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/history-and-use-of-the-apostrophe https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/history-and-us... uses the example “cyning” (king) and “cyninges” (king’s). In theory the apostrophe stands for the missing e.
- samatman 6y agoGoes to show I shouldn't trust something, just because it was taught to me in school...
- hnick 6y ago> "John is" is not contracted to "John's" It is, actually. It's just best avoided due to confusion unless you're doing it for quoting or dialogue purposes. https://www.writersdigest.com/write-better-fiction/contractions-with-proper-nouns-brians-a-baseball-fan https://www.writersdigest.com/write-better-fiction/contracti...