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> That makes intuitive sense, since preference relations ~are~ partially ordered sets Preference relations of rational agents are, anyway. When it comes to us
by Sharlin 6y ago
> That makes intuitive sense, since preference relations ~are~ partially ordered sets
Preference relations of rational agents are, anyway. When it comes to us mere mortals, well, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intransitivity#Occurrences_in_preferences https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intransitivity#Occurrences_in_....
- zwaps 6y agoyes of course, but even then we are left to describe such intransitivities in a useful manner rather than conclude the actors is simply non-rational. If it were so, then human behavior would be impossible to analyze. Instead, if we focus on causes and consequences of non transitive preferences - like in behavioral economics - we may regain the ability to do analyzes.