2 ms·
it's probably the latter, because the former is about 5ms (which is equivalent to the statement, "how short of a time between sounds are they perceivable as sep
by qppo 6y ago
it's probably the latter, because the former is about 5ms (which is equivalent to the statement, "how short of a time between sounds are they perceivable as separate" aka the lower frequency threshold of hearing). It's non obvious that they're the same limit.