7 of 9 justices voted with their respective liberal/conservative blocs and you say my point (that the public perceives the justices as having ideological biases

7 of 9 justices voted with their respective liberal/conservative blocs and you say my point (that the public perceives the justices as having ideological biases) is invalidated? Invalidated by the fact that 2 of 9 justices broke ranks in this one particular case? The fact that there are so-called liberal/conservative blocs away from which the justices occasionally break means that yes, there is a common perception that the justices allow their ideological biases to influence their opinions.