I agree there's good reason to be skeptical about claims that certain language is inherently harmful, but let's be charitable and believe people are genuinely o

I agree there's good reason to be skeptical about claims that certain language is inherently harmful, but let's be charitable and believe people are genuinely offended. I have 2 questions: 1. Does offence in this case constitute harm? 2. What percentage of the population needs to be offended before it should be taken seriously? 51%? 10%? A single person? Perhaps the majority of people in an affected group?