That no country has practiced complete free-trade means Smith was wrong about free-trade? Scialabba is saying Smith was wrong to argue that protectionism would

That no country has practiced complete free-trade means Smith was wrong about free-trade? Scialabba is saying Smith was wrong to argue that protectionism would never be a net economic benefit because richer countries have in fact been more protectionist than poorer ones. Admittedly this doesn't follow strictly logically, but that's a technical point. More interesting is whether the claim about rich vs. poor countries is true. If it is, it's significant. Has anyone here read Ha-Joon Chang?