3 ms·

Do you happen to have a source for this? Intuitively, 2% sounds like a very high number to me for what is being implied.

• andai 6y ago
  It's a ballpark number, between the prevalence of bipolar disorder (1-3%) and schizophrenia (0.5%). It could be 1%, it could be 0.1%. This doesn't change the point, that you cannot predict the long-term impact to your neurochemistry until it happens to you. You won't know if you're one of the unlucky 1/1000, until you know, and then it's too late. I've seen it happen to nine people, and most of them did not recover to a normal standard of living.
  • rocgf 6y ago
    Ah, correct, I see where my confusion came from before. While I think you are largely correct, your explanation might be a bit incomplete. As far as my understanding goes, these mental disorders generally have an early onset, around your early 20s, and the question of whether drugs cause them or simply speed up the timeline is unanswered. This is partly why you should abstain from drugs as long as possible - it is better to start at 25 than at 16. In other words, if you are 30, never had any mental issues and you start smoking cannabis, you are unlikely to develop schizophrenia, for example. I may be wrong with the above, and I'd love to be corrected.