"I'd expect an inverse correlation between % of the population employed in ICT and salary, instead, I find the opposite. In the better-paid countries, a lot of

"I'd expect an inverse correlation between % of the population employed in ICT and salary, instead, I find the opposite. In the better-paid countries, a lot of people are working IT, whilst in the worst-paid countries, it's much fewer." I am not sure how that is not a simple corollary of economics behaving more or less how it usually does. "Moving on from the right to the left of the economic axis we have a maximally corrupt market, which serves only to funnel money to the richest people at the expenses of the poorer at all levels and thus global inequality in anything (including salaries) should be correlated with how rich a country already is. "How do we identify a "rich oppressive country"? Hard to tell. "Is PPP per capita as good and indicator as any? Probably. Since I don't know how recent the Bloomberg data is, I will go ahead and use the GDP data from 2012, since that's when my PISA data is from." High GDP indicates high inequality? "Programmer salaries are very strongly correlated with how wealthy a country is. "Programmer salaries are strongly correlated with how well-educated a country is. "Programmer salaries are relatively well correlated with how well a certain country speaks English. "Programmer salaries are inversely correlated with % of the population working in IT. "But since all of those 4 things are strongly correlated to each other." Ok, I'll buy that. But I'm still not sure what this has to do with the question asked by the title.