3 ms·
Yes. Most of the time, the reason is that there is a general form for computing derivatives of products ((xy)' = x'y + xy') and composite functions (chain rule
by abstrakraft 6y ago
Yes. Most of the time, the reason is that there is a general form for computing derivatives of products ((xy)' = x'y + xy') and composite functions (chain rule) while no such general rules exist for integrals.