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none of those assertions provides any relevant rationale for huge pre-existing demand prior to the british desire to extract riches in exchange for drugs.
by clairity 6y ago
none of those assertions provides any relevant rationale for huge pre-existing demand prior to the british desire to extract riches in exchange for drugs.
- solidsnack9000 6y agoDemand for opium was on the upswing in China before the British entered the trade. The British did not have a power to manufacture demand in China and in fact could not place personnel in China. British opium was smuggled into China by Chinese merchants.
- clairity 6y agoagain, all assertion, no rationale. besides, the british didn't need to be in the interior of china en masse to induce demand.
- solidsnack9000 6y agoI don't have a rationale for the increasing demand for opium in the 1700s -- I don't know why it was increasing -- but it is well documented.