4 ms·
I don't know anything about IBM in this regard. Isn't that situation dependant? Or is such a thing common enough to say that this usually is the case? I.e. +50
by mettamage 6y ago
I don't know anything about IBM in this regard. Isn't that situation dependant? Or is such a thing common enough to say that this usually is the case?
I.e. +50% shares need to be outstanding (assuming nothing is owned by the hostile PE firm).
- scribu 6y agoYou're right, there need to be enough outstanding shares for a hostile takeover to take place. But more relevantly to IBM's case, the top shareholders are also the top executives. [1] So, in this case, the stock price going down affects them direcly. [1] https://www.investopedia.com/articles/insights/052216/top-5-ibm-shareholders-ibm.asp https://www.investopedia.com/articles/insights/052216/top-5-...
- Tehdasi 6y agoTop individual shareholders. Their holdings are tiny, the highest one holds ~10m compared to a market cap of ~100B.