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> Which is why it's laudable that Gates has specified that their Foundation needs to disburse all funds within some specific, limited timeframe (20 years?) afte

> Which is why it's laudable that Gates has specified that their Foundation needs to disburse all funds within some specific, limited timeframe (20 years?) after his death. That is laudable. I would like to understand the details of this dispersion. For example, even if a family does not receive the inheritance, a set of institutions, with a particular network & belief system, will. Centralization of power is not just a familial phenomenon, but also pertains to institutions, beliefs, etc. The Catholic Church as an institution is an example of centralization of power & influence that transcended a single family line well over one thousand years... The Rockefeller Foundation continues to have worldwide influence well after David Rockefeller's death.

IfOnlyYouKnew 6y ago
No, it goes further than that: The Foundation is required to spent all its funds within 20 years of Bill & Melinda's death. It will then cease to exist. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_&_Melinda_Gates_Foundation#Lifespan https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_&_Melinda_Gates_Foundatio... and https://www.gatesfoundation.org/who-we-are/general-information/financials/foundation-trust https://www.gatesfoundation.org/who-we-are/general-informati...
- bungle 6y ago
  Why wait until death? Why not start right away? All his entities are just getting wealthier each year. In 2010 Bill Gates wealth was 50 billion. Now it is 100 billion. 15 years after the announcement and "philanthropic" work. Can you explain that.