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Yeah, not much to go by from the snips, but "After DDN’s acquisition ... subsequently improperly open sourced ... without DDN’s permission" [emphasis added] mak
by mreome 6y ago
Yeah, not much to go by from the snips, but "After DDN’s acquisition ... subsequently improperly open sourced ... without DDN’s permission" [emphasis added] makes it sound like this is what they are claiming happened. That someone released the source code as open source when they didn't have the copyrights to it anymore. Not knowing all the facts it's hard to say, but there is a possibility they may have the law on their side here.
This is kind of an interesting question in open-source. Developers tend to just assume that a license is valid, but that's only true if the license issuer had full copyright of the code to begin with (work-product agreements become a possible source of complication here). There is always a chance that someone could come along later and claim copyright over some/all of that code, which could by then be forked and/or incorporated into various projects.
- jopsen 6y agoClaiming a rouge employee entered agreement/sale/purchase/contract and therefore said agreement is invalid, probably only works in some cases. I'm no lawyer, but I would guess that if senior management of a subdivision is doing something it's hard to claim "rouge employee" :) Otherwise, corporations would break all sorts of contracts claiming they were never valid in the first place.
- itronitron 6y ago>> Developers tend to just assume that a license is valid They also tend to assume that if the license is valid then the code is also not implementing any unlicensed patents.