This is the law he was prosecuted under: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/section/20/1994-11-02 http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/section/2

This is the law he was prosecuted under: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/section/20/1994-11-02 http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/section/20/1994-... > A person who dishonestly, with a view to gain for himself or another or with intent to cause loss to another, by any deception procures the execution of a valuable security shall on conviction on indictment be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years; and this subsection shall apply in relation to the making, acceptance, indorsement, alteration, cancellation or destruction in whole or in part of a valuable security, and in relation to the signing or sealing of any paper or other material in order that it may be made or converted into, or used or dealt with as, a valuable security, as if that were the execution of a valuable security. He intended to gain, and he collaborated with someone else to cheat. Loss isn't required. Under the newer law (Fraud Act 2006) it's not necessary to show any gain. https://www.cps.gov.uk/legal-guidance/fraud-act-2006 https://www.cps.gov.uk/legal-guidance/fraud-act-2006 > It is not necessary to prove or demonstrate any consequences of fraud (though they will clearly be material to sentence, compensation and confiscation). "Preddy" type difficulties will not arise (where the property obtained had not belonged to another); To me it feels odd that you'd need to show a loss. How would you prosecute people who attempted but failed to defraud others?