2 ms·
Things quickly fall apart if you rely on your intuition. Let's imagine all the odd numbers: 1, 3, 5, etc. Now imagine all the even numbers: 2, 4, 6, etc. Can
by laichzeit0 6y ago
Things quickly fall apart if you rely on your intuition.
Let's imagine all the odd numbers: 1, 3, 5, etc.
Now imagine all the even numbers: 2, 4, 6, etc.
Can we agree that there is an "infinite" amount of numbers in each of those groups?
Now imagine all the odd numbers and even numbers together. That's also infinite right?
Would you say there are more "all numbers" than just "all odd numbers", or would you say that there are an equal number of them? (hint: the answer is equal).
- erodommoc 6y agoWell, the answer is equal because of how you define equality of infinite sets (one-to-one and onto). It's a very useful definition, but it's hardly the only possible definition.