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This is 'more intuitive' if you think about it this way: If any two real numbers are not equal, then you can take the average and get a third number that is ha
by ltbarcly3 7y ago
This is 'more intuitive' if you think about it this way:
If any two real numbers are not equal, then you can take the average and get a third number that is half way between them. Conversely, if the average of two numbers is equal to either of the numbers, then the two numbers are equal. (this isn't a proof, just a way to convince yourself of this)
What's the average of .9999... and 1?
- saagarjha 7y ago0.999…5 obviously.
- edflsafoiewq 7y agoOr: if they're different, what is their difference?
- peanutz454 7y ago0.000...1 obviously
- edflsafoiewq 7y agoWhy not 0.000...2?
- TallGuyShort 7y agoThinking of it this way actually shows you that x.999... (ad infinitum) is the same as y.000 (ad infinitum) if x + 1 = y.
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]