Am I wrong to think this is a nonsensical question? I mean PTSD is just a term. I'm not saying there is not a real phenomenon underlying it but it's not somethi

Am I wrong to think this is a nonsensical question? I mean PTSD is just a term. I'm not saying there is not a real phenomenon underlying it but it's not something that can be objectively tested for in the sense of a blood test or something. It seems to essentially mean a subjective evaluation of "severe emotional trauma with lasting consequences" So if you ask: "Was there severe emotional trauma with lasting consequences in the medieval world" and assuming that people 600 years ago were not biologically incapable of having emotional trauma, than yes of course, if we tested some of those people using the procedures and criteria we use today to diagnose PTSD, of course yes, we would conclude that they did have it. Hearing psychology professionals take tautologically nonsensical questions like this seriously really makes me lose faith in modern psychology.