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How can a contract that gives both parties equal chances of winning equal amounts of money be exploitative?
by tomp 7y ago
How can a contract that gives both parties equal chances of winning equal amounts of money be exploitative?
- thisiszilff 7y agoThe loser is exploited. Imagine if the losing condition were that the loser is enslaved. Just because you can't tell at the start which party will be the loser (and so exploited) doesn't mean the contract itself isn't exploitative