3 ms·
>> Okay, let's put these two things together: You cannot just put these two together without making your proof cyclic. AFAIK, the second one, e ^ x = lim ((1
by alok-g 16y ago
>> Okay, let's put these two things together:
You cannot just put these two together without making your proof cyclic. AFAIK, the second one, e ^ x = lim ((1 + x/N) ^ N), can be proven only for real x without using Euler's formula or almost proving it as an intermediate step. Thus substitution from #1 using complex numbers is not legal without proof.
Here's an analogy to consider:
1. Boyle's law: P1.V1 = P2.V2
2. Charles law: V1/T1 = V2/T2
Multiply LHS and RHS of the above two.
3. P1.(V1^2)/T1 = P2.(V2^2)/T2.
Yet, the gas equation is ...
4. P1.V1/T1 = P2.V2/T2
... and not #3.
While there is nothing wrong with the multiplication used for computing #3, this process adds the assumptions used for #1 and #2. Here's a more precise version then:
1'. Boyle's law: P1.V1 = P2.V2 when T1 = T2
2'. Charles law: V1/T1 = V2/T2 when P1 = P2
Multiply LHS and RHS of the above two.
3'. P1.(V1^2)/T1 = P2.(V2^2)/T2 when T1=T2 and P1=P2.
Derivation for #4 avoids those two assumptions.
In your proof of Euler's identity, the assumptions for your #1 and #2 cannot be considered to be compatible without proof.
- ScottBurson 16y agoI never used the word "proof". I said "intuitive explanation". Yes, it looks a bit like a proof because I wanted to break it down for people, but it contains hand-waving at more points than the one you identified.