3 ms·
I think there's a more intuitive explanation than the Taylor series expansions (whose correctness, after all, is not exactly obvious). It is not hard to show t
by ScottBurson 16y ago
I think there's a more intuitive explanation than the Taylor series expansions (whose correctness, after all, is not exactly obvious). It is not hard to show that the product of two complex numbers in polar form is:
(r1, θ1) ⋅ (r2, θ2) = (r1 ⋅ r2, θ1 + θ2)
That is, the radii multiply, but the angles add. If we consider only points on the unit circle, where the radii are all 1, clearly the product of any two such points is a third such point.
Now consider that
e ^ x = lim ((1 + x/N) ^ N)
N -> ∞
This equation defines real exponentiation in terms of integer exponentiation, which in turn is defined in terms of multiplication. To make it familiar, consider that
(1 + I/N) ^ NP
is the formula for compound interest, where I is the interest rate per period, P is the number of periods, and N is the number of compounding intervals per period. Let's say P = 1 so we can ignore P. If the interest rate is 12% annually and you're compounding monthly, then the balance after one year is higher by a factor of
(1 + .12/12) ^ 12 ≈ 1.1268249
But you could compound daily, hourly, by the minute, second, millisecond, ... As the compounding interval gets smaller, the result approaches
e ^ .12 ≈ 1.1274968
Okay, let's put these two things together:
e ^ ix = lim (1 + ix/N) ^ N [let "N -> ∞" be implicit]
= lim (r, arcsin x/Nr) ^ N
where r = √(1 + (ix/N) ^ 2)
As N -> ∞, r -> 1 and arcsin x/N -> x/N, so this reduces to
e ^ ix = lim (1, x/N) ^ N
= (1, lim (x/N) ⋅ N))
Remember, the radii multiply, but the angles add! This is the key step. From here it's easy:
e ^ ix = (1, x)
That's the general result; from there the special case is trivial:
e ^ iπ = (1, π) = cos π + i sin π = -1
EDIT: clarification.
- alok-g 16y ago>> Okay, let's put these two things together: You cannot just put these two together without making your proof cyclic. AFAIK, the second one, e ^ x = lim ((1 + x/N) ^ N), can be proven only for real x without using Euler's formula or almost proving it as an intermediate step. Thus substitution from #1 using complex numbers is not legal without proof. Here's an analogy to consider: 1. Boyle's law: P1.V1 = P2.V2 2. Charles law: V1/T1 = V2/T2 Multiply LHS and RHS of the above two. 3. P1.(V1^2)/T1 = P2.(V2^2)/T2. Yet, the gas equation is ... 4. P1.V1/T1 = P2.V2/T2 ... and not #3. While there is nothing wrong with the multiplication used for computing #3, this process adds the assumptions used for #1 and #2. Here's a more precise version then: 1'. Boyle's law: P1.V1 = P2.V2 when T1 = T2 2'. Charles law: V1/T1 = V2/T2 when P1 = P2 Multiply LHS and RHS of the above two. 3'. P1.(V1^2)/T1 = P2.(V2^2)/T2 when T1=T2 and P1=P2. Derivation for #4 avoids those two assumptions. In your proof of Euler's identity, the assumptions for your #1 and #2 cannot be considered to be compatible without proof.
- ScottBurson 16y agoI never used the word "proof". I said "intuitive explanation". Yes, it looks a bit like a proof because I wanted to break it down for people, but it contains hand-waving at more points than the one you identified.