I never claimed that. I claimed that workers generally are no longer reaping the benefits of increased productivity. If you want to offer income inequality as

I never claimed that. I claimed that workers generally are no longer reaping the benefits of increased productivity. If you want to offer income inequality as an explanation, then I'd be interested to hear how you work that all out, and if the math adds up. But, my contention that all the gains from increased productivity are going to those at the top seems to be exactly what you are espousing, yes? Are you agreeing with me in different words, or am I misunderstanding?