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The difference is more when it comes to precedence, which allows judges in Anglo-Saxon countries essentially to create law. Judges in France still need to inte
by zwaps 7y ago
The difference is more when it comes to precedence, which allows judges in Anglo-Saxon countries essentially to create law.
Judges in France still need to interpret laws according to what they intended to do. There's then a majority and minority opinion(s) on how that law is intepreted, and these things are set by discourse and precedence, with judges being free to decide.
In practice the difference is not so large.