> What else would motivate their decisions to forego profit on the allowed product categories? Let's look at the situation. First, there's the added cost of co

> What else would motivate their decisions to forego profit on the allowed product categories? Let's look at the situation. First, there's the added cost of complying. Second, there's a risk that even with a good faith attempt, they would not be able to comply, and thus there could be fines. Third, by restricting what can be sold, the order may have diminished Amazon's revenue and profits. So it could very well be that under the order it is not profitable for Amazon to operate its warehouses in France. > They are not, but they are aiming at leveraging their near-monopoly status to create public outrage against the decision. Maybe it's a bad decision with bad consequences, and that is what would cause any outrage. Maybe there won't be any outrage after all, since the French apparently have solidarity with the workers in these warehouses? I don't see any evidence that Amazon is artificially inflating their response to generate outrage.