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Taleb describes this well: globalism allows for optimization (cost, efficiency), but increases risk. To reduce risk, add redundancy (locally).
by muro 7y ago
Taleb describes this well: globalism allows for optimization (cost, efficiency), but increases risk. To reduce risk, add redundancy (locally).
- te_chris 7y agoSorry, trying not to nitpick, but you mean Globalisation, not globalism.
- elliekelly 7y agoIn some ways it decreases risk though, too. The risk of war, specifically. The US and Chinese governments are far from friends but our economies are much too interconnected to allow either side to instigate too much of a disagreement. For the most part globalization is good but the pandemic has certainly highlighted the value of strategic redundancy or at least an emergency plan B.
- TeMPOraL 7y agoIsn't WWI the usual counterargument to globalization reducing the risk of war? Or were the countries back then not interconnected enough?
- elliekelly 7y agoThat's a good point. Perhaps globalization alone only marginally reduces the risk and it's the combination of globalization + trust (or at least not mistrust) that reduces the likelihood of war. If that's the case then the US government's efforts to take supplies away from some of our closest allies is even more dangerous and short-sighted than I initially thought. A month ago I would have said a mask factory in Canada vs. US is nearly equal in terms of national security because Canada could be trusted to help in a time of crisis. I'm sure many Canadians felt the same way. Now I'm not so sure that's true and I certainly don't blame the Canadians.
- vkou 7y agoNo shortage of ink was spilled on the wishful thinking that globalization will prevent future wars... All through the 1910s.
- theptip 7y agoI wasn't familiar with this counterargument, and did a quick dig and found this primer: https://www.economist.com/buttonwoods-notebook/2017/06/14/the-globalisation-counter-reaction https://www.economist.com/buttonwoods-notebook/2017/06/14/th... Do you have any particular recommendations/sources for further discussion around this argument?
- TeMPOraL 7y agoNot really, it's just something I've seen used as the most common counterargument to "tighter economic connections decreases risk of war", given that apparently in 1914 people thought international war was nearly impossible due to all the trade interdependencies. I honestly never dug deeper into the similarities and differences between then and now.
- willyt 7y agoBack then every component of a battleship, the most powerful and advanced weapon of the time could be built independently by Britain, France, Germany, Italy, USA, Japan etc. Today, there are very few weapons systems that do not depend on allied countries for a critical component. E.g. it is quite well known that Britain's nuclear powered subs use US reactors and US missiles, but even the steel plate for the hull is likely sourced from another country as there is only one steelworks left in the UK which probably is not able to produce the right alloy in the desired thicknesses. In fact, industry in the UK has declined to the extent that we could not independantly produce a WW1 era battleship any more without a vast restructuring of the economy which would take decades.
- BurningFrog 7y ago"Reducing" and "completely eliminating" are very different things.
- brobinson 7y agoThis was the prevailing thought before World War 1 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Great_Illusion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Great_Illusion
- smacktoward 7y agoThe economist Norman Angell (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norman_Angell https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norman_Angell) published a highly influential book, The Great Illusion, making this exact argument. In 1909. It has, let’s say, not aged gracefully.
- _bxg1 7y agoI think one of the greatest mistakes made over and over by sociologists, futurists, and economists, is to assume that people are rational.
- jacques_chester 7y agoThe problem with this argument is ignoring the counterfactual cases: the wars that have not occurred, that would have occurred otherwise. Europe was mired in endless wars for millenia. It's now in the longest stretch of peace in centuries and, by sheer coincidence, at its highest levels of trade. In the rest of the world trade has steadily risen and wars and deaths from wars have fallen steadily. Correlation might not be causation, but it would interesting know what third factor explains both "more trade" and "fewer wars" other than "it's hard to fight a war with the people who feed you".
- frank2 7y agoI suggest that the third factor is US policy. Before World War II, Britain had its trading empire, France had its empire, Japan had its empire, etc. Oceanic trade between nations not in the same empire ran a high risk of the cargo simply being confiscated or destroyed by one of the imperial navies. A key pillar of the US's strategy in the Cold War was to use its naval supremacy to prevent the return to the imperial trading system; in other words, it extended to nations an offer of the ability to trade freely on the world's oceans in exchange for that nation's joining the US in opposing the Soviets. The United States also suppressed wars. For example, the 2 nations that arguably had the most powerful pre-WWII militaries (Britain and France) allied with Israel to attack Egypt after Egypt nationalized the Suez Canal, but the United States, worried that the Soviets could enter the conflict, threatened Britain and France with economic sanctions unless they withdrew, which they did.