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> The EU and the US comprise several nations, so why does that not make sanctions "international"? For the same reason sanctions agreed on by Russia, China and
by pmachinery 7y ago
> The EU and the US comprise several nations, so why does that not make sanctions "international"?
For the same reason sanctions agreed on by Russia, China and North Korea (also a group comprising several nations) would not mean "international sanctions".
Not that anyone would refer to that as such anyway, of course, because we easily recognize misleading propaganda when its used by the bad guys.
> Conversely, are international sanctions ever applied by literally every nation on earth?
Nobody said literally every nation on Earth, but it should refer to more than just two political unions which are virtually joined at the hip economically, (geo)politically and even racially, and constitute a mere ~10% of the world.
UN sanctions, for example, could justifiably be called international sanctions, though there still seems no point when it's more accurate and simpler to just say "UN sanctions".
- perl4ever 7y ago"For the same reason sanctions agreed on by Russia, China and North Korea (also a group comprising several nations) would not mean "international sanctions"." You are saying that three nations are too few to be "international", and therefore nearly 30 must be too few also? My general rule of thumb is that an order of magnitude often makes a meaningful difference.
- pmachinery 7y agoEU law applies to nearly 30 countries. Does that make it "international law"?