3 ms·
because then the formula for area would be (pi/2)r^2?
by leetcrew 7y ago
because then the formula for area would be (pi/2)r^2?
- SamBam 7y agoIndeed, that's an advantage. If you use tau=2pi, you'd then you'd see how the area = 1/2 τr^2 is actually conceptually similar to KE = 1/2 mv^2 (and similar for PE, distance fallen in gravity, etc. That 1/2 is actually important.)
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]