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How many were so sick that they would have died anyway? I read that they were testing dead people and the theory was, their count was so high because they woul
by k__ 7y ago
How many were so sick that they would have died anyway?
I read that they were testing dead people and the theory was, their count was so high because they would add people to it that would have died anyway but just happen to be infected right before their death.
Edit: I think this is an interesting question. Why do Italy, France and Spain have such high death ratios? Are they measuring more than needed or are the others measuring not enough?
- gambiting 7y agoRight, but you need to establish the cause of death and it's kind of important. Like for example my father was fighting cancer for 8 years before he died, but when he passed away the hospital wrote that he died of "cardiac arrest", since his heart just couldn't go anymore. So in some statistic somewhere he will exist as a person who died of heart problems, not someone who died because of cancer. That's not right either I don't think.
- bart_spoon 7y agoThis is a problem with counting diabetes deaths as well. We have evidence to believe that people with diabetes are much more likely to get heart disease or cancer, which is what they usually die from. There's lots of debate on if mortality due to diabetes is underestimated for the same reasons.
- vladvasiliu 7y agoI can only speak for France, where I live, but the situation is possibly the same in Spain and Italy. Over here they only test people who are "very sick", in other words people who need medical attention. They are not testing people with no or "mild" symptoms. Basically this means if you don't feel like you're about to die, you're not tested and therefore you're not counted. So to answer your question, they're actually not measuring enough.
- k__ 7y agoIn Germany they also only test people who have specific symptoms AND contact to high risk people/places.