You’re assuming that the reporting in Germany is the same as the reporting in France. While they reached 4 cases the same day, that doesn’t mean that they had

You’re assuming that the reporting in Germany is the same as the reporting in France. While they reached 4 cases the same day, that doesn’t mean that they had the same number of unknown infections. Let’s say France had 10x as many unknown infections than Germany. How would that impact the disparity in death count? And is this even a large enough sample size for that disparity to not just be explained to a high degree by mere chance?